Thursday, September 27, 2012

Question for the Day

How could Hume be so certain (in Book I, Part III) of his Treatise that all knowledge is probabilistic? In fact, he argues that knowledge is certain, but knowledge is based on ideas, which are based on perceptions of experiences; and those ideas can only be probabilistic. So, doesn't that mean that knowledge, too, must inevitably be probabilistic? And if that's the case, then by his own logic, there must be at least a slight possibility that knowledge is certain.

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